Man Law Violation Yes or No?

Alright Man "A" walks into an empty public restroom, that has 3 urinals (with dividers between each) and 2 stalls. Since there's no one else there, he obviously goes to use urinal "A", since it is the closest to the door and the sink. While he is in the middle of relieving himself, man "B" walks into the restroom, and proceeds to go to urinal "B" instead of urinal "C".

Now obviously if there were no dividers there has been a definite man law violation, but does the existence of the dividers make this an acceptable practice?